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Was the loss to Chelsea at home intentional?


Zlavik
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Could Adkins have asked the players to underperform in order for Chelsea to underestimate us for this game?

I mean the cup was never that important and we could get a mental advantage from losing on purpose..

 

Nope. But maybe we learned something from that defeat that helped us tonight - who knows?

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Could Adkins have asked the players to underperform in order for Chelsea to underestimate us for this game?

I mean the cup was never that important and we could get a mental advantage from losing on purpose..

 

Definitely.

 

There's no other plausible explanation.

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Long, cold, lonely winter in Umeå, is it? People have been known to go crazy in the long, cold, lonely winter in Umeå. Crazy as in the Shining crazy. Or worse. Crazy as in the "play to lose" crazy.

 

No need to go to personal attacks mate. It's a hypothetical question. And yes, it sure is a long cold winter - something only men can handle. Adios!

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I find it difficult to believe that any manager would specifically ask his team to underperform (unless for match fixing reasons), although I do believe a manager could put less importance on winning a game.

As per the fans opinions, I’m sure if Nigel had answered honestly which of the two games he’d rather get something from, he’d have gone for the league game and I’m sure he used the cup game to try a few things out and gets some ideas for how to approach/not approach the league game. But I can’t see that he’d have specifically asked players to underperform, no way José!!!!!

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